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Are the Boltons the rightful Lords of Winterfell?


Salafi Stannis

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So, I believe that Stannis is the rightful king because he is Roberts rightful heir and Robert won the throne from the Targaryens, who also derived their claim from right of conquest. So, I was arguing with a fellow poster, and they pointed out that, with this reasoning, I must also accept that the Boltons are the rightful Lords of Winterfell, having won it from the Starks by right of conquest, and I tried to find a fault with that reasoning, and lo and behold, I couldn't. Are the Boltons the rightful Lords of Winterfell? Or is "right to rule" a meaningless social construct? In which case the Starks still aren't the rightful Lords of Winterfell, if there is no right to rule. I want Stannis to be rightful king, and I also want the Starks to be the rightful Lords of Winterfell, but I can't think both, they are mutually exclusive. I still stick to my reasoning about how Stannis is the rightful king, so this would also mean that the Boltons are the rightful Lords of Winterfell, and that sucks.

EDIT - However, it was pointed out to me that the Boltons were given Winterfell by the Lannisters, who are traitors and are not the rightful rulers, and have no right to give the Boltons Winterfell, so the Boltons are in fact NOT the rightful Lords of Winterfell, and that the Starks are, so crisis of conscience AVERTED!

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Stannis' authority trumps Bolton's rise to power. if Stannis is the true king and means to put the Starks back as the leading house of the North, then that is a more important claim for the spot than Roose's power moves and royal acknowledgment as the head of the North from a false king


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But the King has the right to name the Warden of the North, East, West etc....... (not Dorne) as Joffrey (actually Tywin) did to give the Boltons the role. If Stannis is indeed the true king they he names the warden and he doesn't want the Boltons. They did not win the north by conquest but through Joffrey granting them the role.

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So, I believe that Stannis is the rightful king because he is Roberts rightful heir and Robert won the throne from the Targaryens, who also derived their claim from right of conquest. So, I was arguing with a fellow poster, and they pointed out that, with this reasoning, I must also accept that the Boltons are the rightful Lords of Winterfell, having won it from the Starks by right of conquest, and I tried to find a fault with that reasoning, and lo and behold, I couldn't. Are the Boltons the rightful Lords of Winterfell? Or is "right to rule" a meaningless social construct? I want Stannis to be rightful king, and I also want the Starks to be the rightful Lords of Winterfell, but I can't think both, they are mutually exclusive. I still stick to my reasoning about how Stannis is the rightful king, so this would also mean that the Boltons are the rightful Lords of Winterfell, and that sucks.

Do you know what conquest means ????????

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Eh, Renly had the right of it. Armies make kings. The rest is just justification after the fact. No one really believes Robert's claim to the throne was derived from some distant relationship to the Targaryens, it came from his hammer on the trident.

This. If the Boltons can hold it then they are the rightful rulers of the north. Something tells me they wont though

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Also, Targaryen legitimacy can only be counted from the king who converted to the Faith and made peace with the Andals. The first two Targaryen rulers were basically military occupants of a continental scale.

Aegon still conquered the kingdoms and had the kings bend the knee to him. (Well, except Dorne).

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