Aemon Targaryen

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About Aemon Targaryen

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  1. Wight hunt the new 'jump the shark'.
  2. One of the very first sounds this season was the chains carried by the NK clinking. Deus ex machina ... but maybe intentional: the NK could foresee he would need the chains, just as there was the air of inevitability about the way he took down Viserion with the javelin.
  3. Bran Stark effectively died at about the same time Summer died. So the argument actually cuts the other way.
  4. Btw, first scene of season --- NK on horse with chains clinking. He already knew he would need chains to pull out Viserion.
  5. Why isn't there are NK in the books? The WW don't even have a leader, or we haven't been informed of one. What if that is because the way GRRM plays it out in the books is that the leader only gets revealed to be late and at the same time as Bran's role in his creation (or that Bran is the leader) is revealed? I like the idea of Bran paying thousands of years of penance in the frozen North by being the NK, waiting until now to move South so as to allow himself to be unmade at the God's Eye --- just payback for Hodor!!
  6. Also go back to LOTR ... what was ultimately unsatisfying about LOTR? Imo, it was that Sauron the Dark Lord was just implacably and absolutely evil. Yet even the Dark Lord had more of an explanation for his evil, in much shorter books, than what GRRM has described about the WW and the Others. How can this be? Reading LOTR, the characters that oscillate between evil/good are mainly Gollum/Smeagol, Saruman, Boromir, the king of the Rohirrim ... yet Sauron is merely a cipher. So disappointing! Surely GRRM wants to go one better, especially given the major plot significance of the WW as the main plot engine.
  7. The NK = Bran theory also explains how GRRM has treated the WW, the Others, the NK from the start. If Others are simply evil, it doesn't make sense. If Others are not evil, it doesn't make sense. The only way it makes sense is if the Others and in particular the NK are not only evil but good, via some twist. In other words: it now seems very certain that the Others/NK/WW are meant to be evil. Yet there is almost no backstory and set-up for them besides what we get in the Show re: CoTF. How could that be? If GRRM knew the Others were simply going to be the deus ex machina baddies then why wouldn't he set up their back story more? I mean he had unlimited time and space to do so, but so far nothing in the Books. Think about that. This theory creates a very good reason for this: it is a twist too big to be given any real supporting evidence like RLJ.
  8. It is not clear what "the rules" are just because the (now dead) 3ER said that to Bran, if only because it is not clear what "the ink is dry" actually means. Bran seems more powerful than the three-eyed raven (Bloodraven) and any previous greenseer, because he can affect the past. Re: how can CoTF affect him when he's not really there - that is the point - Bran is really physically there in the visions. He can physically affect, and in turn be physically affected. We have proof that Bran can affect the past. We have proof that Bran can be physically affected in a vision (the NK scene) - he didn't just escape - he is permanently marked (in the real world) by the NK. The whole point with Bran is that the magic and the real, the literal and the metaphorical, become one (a la Jojenpaste) ..... so the idea of him being permanently affected or perhaps trapped is definitely a live possibility. The question re: "the ink is dry" is whether, in affecting the past, Bran makes a new present/future or simply creates/reinforces the present/future. Bran created Hodor from Wyllis only at the point we saw him do it (in the cave, in the vision). But Hodor was already Hodor in the present ... so Bran didn't change the present, he made the present. So Bran can affect the past, but by doing so only unintentionally creates the present. In other words, "the ink is dry" does not mean Bran can't affect the past. Rather, it means Bran can affect the past but every time he does so he only confirms the present. So Bran now knows the past, present (and future?) - but is unable to change it. Though whether he has fully accepted "the ink is dry" is unknown. If he hasn't realised, then it's possible that he will make another Hodor-like mistake - i.e. while in the past, physically affecting the past .... but by doing so he only ever ends up creating the current situation. And when you say "how can a man who knows the past not know the past" --- that is the key. Bran is both more powerful than previous greenseers but also way less prepared. He is like a wildfire greenseer, uncontrolled and volatile. The whole theory is premised on another Bran "mistake". Re: NK killing Bran .... it's sort of like NK and Jon. I think NK could easily have killed Jon and could easily have killed Bran .... but chose not to in order for the plot to be fulfilled. In other words, NK stormed the cave only in order to kill the 3ER ... because only by doing that could the NK ensure that Bran's powers would be immature ... and only by doing that would his own creation by Bran be ensured. This leads me to another point ....
  9. Yeah, good point. Really, the big tell was when the NK touched Bran. The true meaning of that hasn't really been thought through. Bran was having a "vision" of the Army of the Dead, WW and the NK. But just like with ToJ and Hodor, it wasn't really "just" a vision ... Bran was actually going back into the past (in the case of Hodor) or the present (in the case of the army of the dead/NK( and seeing events as they actually, historically or in the present, happened - in "real time". If it was just a "vision", then Ned could not possibly have reacted to Bran's voice and turned around. If it was just a "vision", then Bran in the vision couldn't have physically warged into Wyllis. Bran can simultaneously and physically exist: 1. In his body in the cave. 2. In his body in the vision - otherwise how could he warg into Wyllis or speak to Ned? So, when Bran is having his "vision" of the NK he is both simultaneously in the cave and actually present in some other physical way near the NK. Then, what is the difference between the NK scene where Bran is touched by the NK, and the other 2 scenes (ToJ and Wyllis)? 1. In the NK scene, Bran didn't say anything or try to communicate, or warg - he was just "standing". Despite that the NK saw him. 2. In the NK scene, the NK not only sees him, but reaches out and touches him. Remember, there is no evidence that the 3ER or any prior greenseer could ever do what Bran has done - and actually affect the past. Yet, by the NK touching Bran it shows that he has the same magic level as Bran. The NK is able to not merely "perceive" or exist passively in the vision (a la 3ER), but physically act and intrude into the other person's vision. But there is no indication the CoTF or any other greenseer ever had this power ... so why would the NK also have this magical power? It doesn't follow simply from the fact that the CoTF created him. Boiling it all down: 1. Only Bran and the NK has been shown to have this power to "break the magic mirror" and turn dream into reality. 2. There is no indication the NK can affect the past 3. There is no explanation as to why the NK has that level of magic. 4. The tragic consequences of the time loop/ink is dry have not been fully explained or concluded by the Hold the Door. It follows that either the NK "just has" that magic - unsatisfyingly, story wise - or it is somehow related to Bran. It must follow that either: 1. Bran is the NK; or 2. Bran unintentionally created or empowered the NK, just as the CoTF made a mistake in creating him.
  10. I find Isaac's eyebrows really distracting.
  11. Grim ironies are always a pointer that GRRM will go in that direction.Some additional reasons why this theory deserves a lot more credence than it seems to be getting: 1. Bittersweet - We now know Jon and Dany are going to hook up and have a baby. That greatly increases the sweetness/schmaltz side of the ledger. But what is the bitterness to balance it out? Humanity is still going to survive. Jon and Dany's deaths are already priced in, esp since Jon has already died -- that is not enough bitterness, imo. Given the whole twist with Jon coming back to life, Jon's final death doesn't really add much bitter. True that if Jon and Dany have a great romance and die leaving a son, just like R+L left Jon, that will be bitter. But it doesn't seem bitter or unexpected enough. To me, GRRM will want one final sting in the tail, a mega headfuck twist greater than Ned dying and greater than the Red Wedding. 2. Cat's paw irony - first, that the valyrian steel dagger intended to kill Jon back in season 1 - which is what commences the story of GOT in leading Ned not to refuse Robert's request for him to be Hand - actually does end up killing Bran (as NK) and ending the story. 3. Bran will Hodor himself - this is possibly the biggest satisfying irony. The full consequences of the Hodor situation have yet to be revealed, especially given how loved Hodor was to GRRM and readers. There must have been a point besides merely darkening Bran's character and showing his power. What better way than Bran somehow warging back into the flash back where NK is created and becoming him? 4. The Ink is Dry ... At first sight, the 3ER's comments appear to have been contradicted by Bran disturbing Ned at ToJ and by causing Wyllis to become Hodor. That is, on the show, it seems that it is an open question whether Bran can change the past (and thus the present and future). But the only real possible narrative solution to this possibility is to prove that the 3ER was correct to say that the time loop always closes and that the ink is always already dry. (For one thing - it would simply be impossible either in the show or even the books for multiple futures to be dealt with or played out. As a matter of narrative exigency, the time paradoxes must resolve into a single time loop). But at the moment Bran (and the audience) doesn't know this and it seems as if the 3ER may have been proved wrong. WHAT DOES IT ALL MEAN? The way is open for Bran, in a moment of desperation, to try to go back and prevent the NK's creation, only to become him. I guess at that point he ceases to exist in the "present" in Winterfell (but his body remains, limp). But that would mean the NK has always been Bran ... in which case either the NK has pure motives (based around self-destruction - but this doesn't make sense) or Bran does an Anakin Skywalker and actually turns to evil. This is possible - but it would seem to only make sense if the power of the CoTF's magic was such that it instantly turned Bran evil from the start ... in which case the NK has always been evil, and is still evil, but there is a chance for Bran to snap out of it? Maybe GRRM is going to do with NK/Bran what Joss Whedon did with Angel/Angelus in Buffy, when after a fight to the death just as Buffy is going to kill the evil Angelus he turns back into Angel ... NK turns back into Bran but Jon or Arya has to kill him anyway? IF BRAN IS NOT NK WHAT IS THEIR CONNECTION? So, assuming all the above is wrong, still as a matter of story logic there must be some deeper connection than what we already know between NK and Bran. The story simply won't be satisfying without that. It will not be enough for NK to be some random Stark, and it will not be enough for NK to be an old Stark that was really Bran (so that maybe NK and Bran are brothers). It has to be something that grips the "present" characters .... there is some element of Greek tragedy lurking here .... it might not be the above, but it has to be something like it.
  12. Arya clearly entrapping LF. Just like when Jon came back to life, I wish that all the dense people who refused to believe Jon would come back to life would APOLOGISE GODDAMN IT for their blockheadedness. Any reader with a modicum of intuition could spot that RLJ also implied annulment, not least given KG at ToJ.
  13. Obvious to me that LF thinks he is 3 steps ahead of Arya, like he always thinks he is, but she is in fact 3 steps ahead of him. She is trapping LF, whether or not Sansa is in on it yet or not. Of course, this is the end of LF -- so what better way for him to go than to be out-littlefingered by Arya?
  14. Damn, this theory reminds me of AJT. It seems off to begin with, but just keeps growing and ... fitting. Take a look at when Bran gives Arya the valyrian steel dagger. Bran - despite being Dr Branhattan - visibly blanches and looks troubled when he gives it to Arya. He may not have joined all the dots yet ... but what if he has a premonition then that this dagger will kill him? Just as he had the vision (in the books) of a woman using a bronze sickle to slit the throat of a man tied to a weirwood. And this giving of the dagger that will kill him happens in front of the Old Weirwood and cold pool (which mirrors the weirwood on the God's Eye where the Night King was created. So NK is actually Bran just trying to get to God's Eye to commit suicide?
  15. Waiting until Bran Stark was born so he can kill him?