shankari Posted May 21, 2016 Share Posted May 21, 2016 I was watching the series from season 1 once again. But never really understood the phrase, 'a stark must always be in winterfell'. Apologies if there is an established theory for this already (pls share the link) . If GRRM's hints in ADWD were to be believed abt Ramsay marrying a false arya and no Starks are present in winterfell, which caused the beginnings of long winter, the HBO series portrayed Sansa Stark in winterfell. And the long winter did begin. And were the reason for that phrase passed across generations to all stark children? Cat seemed to know and Ned surely did. Did they simply not tell Robb? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vastet Posted May 21, 2016 Share Posted May 21, 2016 In both show and book the long summer ended while there was still a Stark in Winterfell. Winter hasn't begun yet. The long night is winter, where the sun is somehow blotted out everywhere between Westeros and Asshai. As long as there is still daylight, we're still in autumn. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.