Black Crow Posted April 24, 2021 Share Posted April 24, 2021 Welcome to Heresy 235, the latest episode of the long-running thread taking a slantwise look at the Song of Ice and Fire. As threatened, this time around I’d like to take a look at Jon Snow and the R+L=J theory. Fear not, this isn’t going to be a rehash of the old [very old] arguments anent Jon’s parentage. Instead, we’ll suspend those arguments for now and for the purposes of this particular discussion proceed on the basis that its actually true. [!] What GRRM has written and is still writing is not of course what the Mummers presented. It’s been made very clear all the way through that they are two very different stories, even allowing for ordinary dramatic adaptation for the screen. Nevertheless, deeply flawed as it is, that adaptation may offer some important clues anent GRRM’s own aspirations. As we know, not so many years ago, on realising that their version was going to outstrip the book big time, the Mummers, not unreasonably, sat down with GRRM in Santa Fe and demanded answers as to how the story arcs of the principal characters would end. In simple terms they learned from him who would be the last man standing, but little or nothing beyond that and so had to make the rest up by themselves. Surprisingly, despite their trailing of R+L=J from the very beginning and despite the fervid anticipation of the faithful, in Mummers’ eventual version Jon failed to ascend the Iron Throne, presumably because GRRM insisted he would not. So, if Jon Snow’s story arc is not intended to culminate in a Return of the [Targaryen] King moment, and nor is he going to save the day as Azor Ahai come again, then what might be the significance of a plot device casting him as the son of Rhaegar Targaryen ? In other words is Jon Snow’s supposed Targaryen parentage important in itself [and why] or is the irony sufficient? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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