Valmy Posted February 23, 2011 Share Posted February 23, 2011 how in thousands of years of breeding with one another and with the succession laws of westros now great house took control of 2 kingdoms like in europe?the king of the reach dies and the current lord aryn is a second cousin and heir and takes control...how has that not happend in 8,000 years? it happended in similar conditioned europe so many timesIt might have been unusual for Great Houses to marry each other until recently? Maybe in imitation to the the Targaryens marrying the Martells? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Buckwheat Posted February 23, 2011 Share Posted February 23, 2011 Probably. She want to revenge her people and that was ideal opportunity to kill him. She don't cared about punishment.When Khal would died, nobody would want to investigate his death. They would turn in battle for leader, like animals.Would she be killed by his bloodriders, if they were honor, before they kill each other? Probably, but "look at your Khal and you will know what life is worth when all the others is gone"Really? I always believed that maegi was really trying to save Drogo (she warned Dany about the pain of the healing, what he must not do an so on) and that he himself was guilty of what happened to his wound after he tore off the bandages. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lady Winter Rose Posted February 24, 2011 Share Posted February 24, 2011 Really? I always believed that maegi was really trying to save Drogo (she warned Dany about the pain of the healing, what he must not do an so on) and that he himself was guilty of what happened to his wound after he tore off the bandages.MMD was smart woman. She knows costumes of Dotharki. She probably knew that you can't tell Khal "you mustn't". She tell him that he can't tore bandages and he can't drink milk (??).Anyway, I admit it's just speculation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
The Molehill that Rides! Posted February 24, 2011 Share Posted February 24, 2011 I believe she may have warned him about the pain and told not to take the bandages off so that he would leave the bandages on longer, giving the poison longer to start an infection. That's what I read into it anyways. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Patrick Tully Posted February 24, 2011 Share Posted February 24, 2011 how in thousands of years of breeding with one another and with the succession laws of westros now great house took control of 2 kingdoms like in europe?the king of the reach dies and the current lord aryn is a second cousin and heir and takes control...how has that not happend in 8,000 years? it happended in similar conditioned europe so many timesI believe GRRM has implied that Westerosi history as kept by the Citadel may be inaccurate. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Anya, Vengeance Demon Posted February 24, 2011 Share Posted February 24, 2011 how in thousands of years of breeding with one another and with the succession laws of westros now great house took control of 2 kingdoms like in europe?Who says that it's never happened? It's happened a lot. The Bolton lands and the "Marsh Kingdom" were both independent for a long time before they were absorbed by the Starks. In other cases, like the Ironborn conquest of the riverlands, it lasted for a few generations and then came to an end. Granted, I'm not sure if we're told about a kingdom that was absorbed into another by marriage specifically, but I wouldn't assume that it's never happened in eight thousand years.In more recent times, there presumably was some interest by the Targaryens in preventing one lord from gaining control over multiple domains at once and potentially rivaling the throne for power. And GRRM indicates that the laws of succession disfavor combining two separate lordships, so that in your example, the traditional result, if Lord Arryn could successfully make his claim to Highgarden, would involve the elder son getting the Eyrie and the younger son getting the Reach. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lady Winter Rose Posted February 24, 2011 Share Posted February 24, 2011 how in thousands of years of breeding with one another and with the succession laws of westros now great house took control of 2 kingdoms like in europe?the king of the reach dies and the current lord aryn is a second cousin and heir and takes control...how has that not happend in 8,000 years? it happended in similar conditioned europe so many timesDo you remember when someone stated that Tommen would get Westerlands and Stormlands? I think it was when he sign some papers, but I am not sure. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mummer Posted February 24, 2011 Share Posted February 24, 2011 I believe she may have warned him about the pain and told not to take the bandages off so that he would leave the bandages on longer, giving the poison longer to start an infection. That's what I read into it anyways.In real life, if someone has a gaping wound in his chest and you want him to get an infection and die, you don't need to put a poisoned bandage on it; that's what will happen by default. On the other hand, if you want to treat the infection and heal the wound, you're going to need to keep it covered and it's going to itch like hell while it's healing. It's also a good idea to avoid drinking tons of alcohol, which was one of MMD's other instructions that Drogo ignored.GRRM hasn't given us any reason to believe that these things work totally differently in the world of ASOIAF, so I think you're reading too much into this. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mad Monkey Posted February 25, 2011 Share Posted February 25, 2011 Do you remember when someone stated that Tommen would get Westerlands and Stormlands? I think it was when he sign some papers, but I am not sure.It's only natural that when great lords exclusively marry other great lords, lands will be consolidated (assuming no laws specifically put in place to avoid this). Princess Arianne of Dorne was the one who said this to Arys Oakheart, pointing out that if Myrcella takes the throne Tommen will be able to content himself with being the ruler of the Westerlands (being Cersei's son) and the Stormlands (being Robert's son). Hell, if his marriage to Margaery stays, he might even scoop up the Reach as well. Of course, in Westeros they might decide to fix the problem by giving Myrcella the power to dispose of the Westerlands. Or Tommen can divided up his lands among his children. I don't know if there are any rules that prevent unorthodox solutions like that. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hnv Posted February 25, 2011 Share Posted February 25, 2011 It's only natural that when great lords exclusively marry other great lords, lands will be consolidated (assuming no laws specifically put in place to avoid this). Princess Arianne of Dorne was the one who said this to Arys Oakheart, pointing out that if Myrcella takes the throne Tommen will be able to content himself with being the ruler of the Westerlands (being Cersei's son) and the Stormlands (being Robert's son). Hell, if his marriage to Margaery stays, he might even scoop up the Reach as well. Of course, in Westeros they might decide to fix the problem by giving Myrcella the power to dispose of the Westerlands. Or Tommen can divided up his lands among his children. I don't know if there are any rules that prevent unorthodox solutions like that.the westerlands lordship is complex by all laws tyrion is the heirand tommen is the king so he probably won't pass to him. myrcella is the heir in this case.storm's end was given to renly, renly has no heirs so it passes to stannis along with the stormlands? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mad Monkey Posted February 25, 2011 Share Posted February 25, 2011 the westerlands lordship is complex by all laws tyrion is the heirand tommen is the king so he probably won't pass to him. myrcella is the heir in this case.That's true, but Tyrion is attainted so he can't have it, and under Arianne's scenario Myrcella would be the Queen. Her argument was that Arys should not feel sorry for Tommen getting dethroned (under her plan in the 4th book) because Tommen will be ruler of the Stormlands and the West through his father and mother, respectively. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Whatever Posted February 25, 2011 Share Posted February 25, 2011 Do you think he'll keep them both? I mean, if tommen gets both the West and the Stormlands, will his heir get them both too? Or will tommen pass, for istance, the west to his first son and the stormlands to the second? I think that's more likely. A "common" lord cannot have too much (littlefinger is littlefinger, he's different ;D) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Manderly`s Personal Chef Posted February 28, 2011 Share Posted February 28, 2011 I was always under the impression that after Tywin`s death, Kevan was the ruler of Westerlands, althrough it was him who told Cersei to go to Casterly Rock since she is now the Lady of the Rock.Edit: Who is the heir to the throne after Myrcella? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Snow Posted February 28, 2011 Share Posted February 28, 2011 I was always under the impression that after Tywin`s death, Kevan was the ruler of Westerlands, althrough it was him who told Cersei to go to Casterly Rock since she is now the Lady of the Rock.Edit: Who is the heir to the throne after Myrcella?The current succession should be:King TommenMyrcellaStannisShirreen (sp?)GH Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Anya, Vengeance Demon Posted February 28, 2011 Share Posted February 28, 2011 I was always under the impression that after Tywin`s death, Kevan was the ruler of Westerlands, althrough it was him who told Cersei to go to Casterly Rock since she is now the Lady of the Rock.I don't think they make that distinction. The lord or lady of Casterly Rock is the ruler of the West, at least by title. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Manderly`s Personal Chef Posted February 28, 2011 Share Posted February 28, 2011 But since Stannis is a traitor, wouldn`t he be skipped in the succession line? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Patrick Tully Posted February 28, 2011 Share Posted February 28, 2011 But since Stannis is a traitor, wouldn`t he be skipped in the succession line?Yes. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JaimeLannister Posted February 28, 2011 Share Posted February 28, 2011 I don't think they make that distinction. The lord or lady of Casterly Rock is the ruler of the West, at least by title.The crown strips the title Lord Paramount of the Trident from Riverun and gives it to Harrenhal so it can and is a used powerEDIT: Ignore me i misundersood your post Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Whatever Posted March 1, 2011 Share Posted March 1, 2011 I don't think stannis would be skipped.if he's the king, he's no longer a traditor Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Snow Posted March 1, 2011 Share Posted March 1, 2011 But since Stannis is a traitor, wouldn`t he be skipped in the succession line?If you want to get technical, Joffrey, Myrcella, and Tommen aren't related to Robert, so they shouldn't be in the line of succession. GH Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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