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Hooded Man


Kenton Stark

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I've read others thoughts on this and I like many of them. I have a crackpot theory of my on I would like some feedback on.

It has been repeated over and over that There must always be a Stark at Winterfell.

With all the Undead popping up, is it not reasonable to think that a past Lord Stark of Winterfell has been raised to be THE Stark in WF?

especially with the swords being removed from the Crypts?

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especially with the swords being removed from the Crypts?

I always thought the missing swords were those taken by Bran and his companions. It is stated numerous times that Hodor liked to "play" with his sword which was taken from the crypts. Can't find right quote at the moment though.

Furthermore, in one of the visions of Bran in the cave there is one scene that I think connects directly to "there always have to be Stark in Winterfell" expression. He is witness to something that seems to be a blood sacrifice. White-haired woman slits a man's throat and his blood spills into the pond in Godswood. I have a theory (well, more like a gut feeling) that the person killed was a Stark by which act Winterfell magic (for lack of better expression) and whatever power it has was bound to Stark bloodline.

But before I go too far from my point. The whole "there always have to be Stark in Winterfell" expression is obviosly tied to Stark bloodline, by which I understand that "true Stark" is a descendant of ancient House and not, for example, wed into it (which I think is reasonable assumption). Therefore any person in whose veins courses "right" blood should be sufficient to keep the bond working.

There are many dead Starks in the crypts, they are however bloodless, even if risen they couldn't any longer apply to mentioned understanding of the blood pact.

I think the magic in WF is meant to ward from The Others, and by extension wights. Why would the very thing that is repelled by the spell be the thing that keeps it working? Seems illogical to me.

I am however pretty new to both the boards and theorizing so I may be waaay off...

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  • 2 months later...

:agree: No I agree, about what you said about the blood sacrifice that Bran saw. I don't think a dead Stark will do, I think it has to be a living Stark. However, I don't think it has to do with keeping the wights away. There's another neat thread though about Winter- "fell" as being the source of where winter is moving from in the books. I thought it was interesting, might also help connect the theories.

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What if the hooded man was not a man but an illusion being the undead body of lyanna? and maybe she will be in contact with jon ( if he lives ) or if he dies, she will tell bran that jon was never a bastard, but her son? then Bran like saying "We treated him like a bastard, he died a bastard, but he was a dragon" would be cool to see that...

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Lots of threads on "There must always be a Stark in Winterfell", and that whole things fascinates me. Good reminder that I need to go back to some of those threads. Thanks for the OP.

I don't think the Hooded Man is a dead Stark who has been raised, however. I like the theory that the HM is actually Benjen Stark, but I realize that's very far fetched. HM is a living being, though, IMHO, and I have a feeling that it may be a significant reveal in TWOW..

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  • 2 months later...

"There must always be a Stark in Winterfell" doesn't translate into "There will always be a Stark in Winterfell" The former is just to express the Starks desire to always have a stake in the ruling of their ancestral keep. If it was the latter then what you suggest is possible but farfetched. It might be possible that there is a spell on Winterfell to raise a Stark from the dead in the case that no living Starks are around. Though that seems really stupid and unlike GRRM.

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