Does Cersei have PTSD?

[Jon's Queen Consort]

On 14/2/2016 at 9:59 PM, sweetsunray said:

It is not a DSM manual term, but it is still a term used in diagnostics in criminal law and proceedings, and thus still has legal consequences. Hare's PCL-R test is not used to diagnoze ASPD, but psychopathy, and the definition of ASPD and psychopathy as diagnozed by the PCL-R differ significantly, because ASPD leaves out a lot. The sole term not in use for either therapy or legal diagnosis is sociopathy. Since the PCL-R test is used in criminal proceedings, a test developed by Hare (who argues ASPD is an imprecise definition because it leaves out personality traits and focuses mostly on behavior only) and using Hare's definition of psychopathy, the diagnosis is that of psychopathy. Of course, the DSM proponents argue that ASPD = psychopathy as originally defined by Cleckley in the 40s, but their definition is not the same as that of Hare and the PCL-R test, nor is the PCL-R used as a diagnosis test for ASPD. The term psychopathy is not endorsed by the DSM, but it is endorsed by criminology. So, no, as long as the definition of the two differ, the diagnostic tests differ and as long as the psychopathy definition and test is used in official settings then you cannot say it's just "an outdated term".

That is why we had this problem. I have only know about ICD and DCM.