Seli Posted July 5, 2012 Share Posted July 5, 2012 No, it's because people are assuming I'm taking an absolutist position when I'm not. I understand that languages are mutable and shift. That does not mean they are irrelevant to the development of national borders.I don't care about the label, I care about the language itself. Okay, when France expanded to its current borders, why didn't the people within those borders end up speaking the language currently called Mandarin?For the same reason they are speaking Spanish now in parts of south-america, French in Brussels, Turkish in Turkey, English in large parts of north-america. It was the language of power, the language of the conqueror. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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